Are We Only Interpreting the Bible This Way Because of Our Post-Enlightenment Way of Thinking?

Questions about whether we’re only interpreting the Bible according to authorial intent because of our post-Enlightenment way of thinking and whether Zephaniah 3:17 is being taken out of context when someone takes comfort in it.

• How should I respond to someone who says, “The only reason you interpret the Bible by going back to authorial intent is that you live in a post-Enlightenment way of thinking, and others might interpret it differently”?
• Am I taking Zephaniah 3:17 out of context when I take comfort in it?